Science 7
Final Exam

 
June 23, 2005

INTERACTIONS AND ECOSYSTEMS

1)	Decomposers are an optional component of an ecosystem.
a)	True
b)	False

2)	Extinction of species is always a natural process.
a)	True
b)	False

3)	Josh is classifying materials as living and non-living. One of the materials is a seed that was collected a few years earlier. The best way for Josh to decide if it is living or non-living would be to
a)	see if it will absorb water
b)	cut it open to see if it is still green inside
c)	put it in soil to see if it will grow
d)	examine it with a magnifying glass

4)	An example of an abiotic factor in the environment is
a)	flowers
b)	birds
c)	temperature
d)	dogs

5)	An example of a biotic factor in the environment is
a)	wind
b)	soil
c)	water
d)	bacteria

6)	Living organisms interacting with each other and their non-living environment make up a/an
a)	biosphere
b)	habitat
c)	ecosystem
d)	species

7)	Two organisms that live together for mutual benefit are said to be in a symbiotic relationship called
a)	a predator-prey relationship
b)	commensalism
c)	mutualism
d)	parasitism

8)	A mosquito that bites your arm and sucks your blood provides a specific example of a
a)	parasitic relationship
b)	mutualistic relationship
c)	commensalistic relationship
d)	symbiotic relationship

9)	Which of the following has a negative effect on our environment?
a)	Recycling bottles
b)	Off-road biking
c)	Walking to work instead of driving
d)	Using a sanitary landfill as described to comply with the safety standards board

10)	Taking old newspapers and turning them into new cardboard boxes is best defined as which one of the 4 Rs?
a)	Reduce
b)	Reuse
c)	Recycle
d)	Recover

11)	Which of the following is a characteristic of a sanitary landfill?
a)	Layers are spread out to allow moisture to evaporate overnight.
b)	The waste is compacted to transport to incinerator plants.
c)	Waste is covered with a layer of soil daily to reduce odours and litter.
d)	Sanitary landfills incinerate all solid wastes to reduce landfill volume.

12)	Which of the following shows how energy will generally move through an ecosystem?
a)	solar --> herbivore --> producer --> consumer
b)	solar --> producer --> herbivore --> carnivore
c)	carnivore --> herbivore --> producer --> consumer
d)	solar --> producer --> consumer --> herbivore 

13)	An animal that eats both animals and plants is known as a
a)	carnivore
b)	herbivore
c)	omnivore
d)	parasite

14)	An animal that eats dead organisms is known as a
a)	producer
b)	scavenger
c)	herbivore
d)	omnivore

15)	This is a food chain: pond weed --> minnows --> pike --> black bear. Which of these is considered the producer?
a)	pond weed
b)	minnow
c)	pike
d)	black bear

16)	This is a food chain: pond weed --> minnows --> pike --> black bear. Decomposers would come into contact with
a)	pond weed and minnows
b)	pond weed and black bear
c)	pike, black bear, and minnows
d)	pond weed, pike, black bear, and minnows

17)	As you move up a food chain, the amount of energy available at the next level changes in which way?
a)	It doesn't change.
b)	It becomes less.
c)	It becomes more.
d)	It becomes slightly more.

18)	There must be ______________ producers than/as consumers to supply the consumers in an ecosystem.
a)	fewer
b)	the same number of
c)	a few more
d)	a lot more

19)	When liquid water changes to a gas, it is called
a)	precipitation
b)	condensation
c)	evaporation
d)	melting

20)	Evaporation, condensation, and precipitation are all parts of
a)	making fog
b)	the mud cycle
c)	a normal Alberta weather forecast
d)	the water cycle

21)	To change gaseous water to liquid water
a)	condensation must occur
b)	photosynthesis must occur
c)	evaporation must occur
d)	precipitation must occur

22)	Moisture that falls from the sky is known as
a)	condensation
b)	melting
c)	precipitation
d)	evaporation

23)	The primary factor that causes liquid water to become water vapour is
a)	condensation
b)	surface run-off
c)	pressure
d)	temperature

24)	Hawks, owls, and wolves feed on mice but the mouse population has been decreasing. What term below describes what will happen between the hawk, owl, and wolf?
a)	predation
b)	competition
c)	mutualism
d)	commensalism

25)	This is a food chain: pond weed --> minnows --> pike --> black bear. What would happen if the black bear population increased?
a)	The number of pike would increase.
b)	The number of minnows would decrease.
c)	The amount of pond weed would increase.
d)	The number of pike would decrease.

26)	The Canada goose flies south in the fall. This shows that
a)	animals are affected by other organisms in their ecosystem
b)	animals are affected by the abiotic things in their environment
c)	all animals migrate when the fall season approaches
d)	all animals adapt to their specific ecosystem

27)	Which of the following shows the correct order or succession in nature?
a)	Pioneer --> primary --> secondary --> climax
b)	Primary --> pioneer --> secondary --> climax
c)	Pioneer --> climax --> secondary --> primary
d)	Climax --> secondary --> primary --> pioneer

28)	Which of the following organisms is most susceptible to changes in the environment?
a)	fish and reptiles
b)	frogs and salamanders
c)	reptiles and birds
d)	frogs and birds

29)	An ecological footprint helps us to
a)	estimate what resources must be placed within each community
b)	determine the cost of living for all species in a particular ecosystem
c)	determine the exact organisms found in an environment
d)	understand the effect that our way of life has on Earth

PLANET EARTH

30)	A volcano is an opening in Earth's crust through which molten rock, ash, and gases escape.
a)	True
b)	False

31)	There are three types of weathering: chemical, biological, and mechanical.
a)	True
b)	False

32)	All minerals are made up of rocks.
a)	True
b)	False

33)	Metamorphic rocks are formed when heat and pressure transform other rocks.
a)	True
b)	False

34)	There are three types of rock families: sedimentary, metamorphic, and lava.
a)	True 
b)	False  

35)	Which natural disasters happen as a result of tectonic plate movement?
a)	Tsunamis, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions
b)	Earthquakes, hurricanes, volcanic eruptions
c)	Floods, hurricanes, earthquakes
d)	Floods, volcanic eruptions, avalanches

36)	Which of the following make up Earth?
a)	Outer core, inner core, crust, atmosphere
b)	Atmosphere, biosphere, lithosphere, mantle
c)	Mantle, outer core, inner core, crust
d)	Lithosphere, outer crust, atmosphere, inner crust

37)	Geologists are scientists who study
a)	geography
b)	Earth
c)	dinosaurs
d)	universal language

38)	Seismologists would most likely expect an earthquake along an area
a)	near a volcano
b)	along a fault line
c)	in sedimentary rock
d)	near uplifted mountains

39)	The name of the instrument that is used to measure earthquakes is
a)	seismogram
b)	seismic graph
c)	seismometer
d)	seismograph

40)	The most common processes that cause changes to Earth's surface are
a)	water and wind
b)	freezing and thawing
c)	air pressure and erosion
d)	erosion and weathering

41)	If the processes of weathering and erosion continue, the Rocky Mountains will
a)	likely remain the same
b)	gradually become more rounded
c)	continue to grow larger
d)	experience volcanic activity

42)	When describing the lustre of a mineral, we think of
a)	the way the surface reflects light
b)	the colour of powder it leaves behind
c)	how it breaks or splits apart
d)	how easily it can be scratched

43)	When a mineral splits easily into two smooth surfaces, it can be described as
a)	fracture
b)	cleavage
c)	shattering
d)	weathering

44)	Mineral breakage with rough and uneven surfaces can be described as
a)	splintering
b)	fracture
c)	cleavage
d)	weathering

45)	Metamorphic rocks are formed from
a)	layers of rocks
b)	heat and pressure changing other rocks
c)	sediments of glaciers
d)	tiny fossils of marine organisms

46)	Rock samples found with large crystals are thought to be formed in a region
a)	inside Earth where the magma cools slowly
b)	inside Earth where the magma cools quickly
c)	outside Earth where the magma cools slowly
d)	outside Earth where the magma cools quickly

47)	Volcanoes are made from
a)	magma and lava
b)	lava, ash, and rock fragments
c)	dust, ash, and magma
d)	rock fragments

48)	When the physical environment of a rock changes, it determines what kind of rock is
a)	found there
b)	formed there
c)	destroyed there
d)	discovered there

49)	If an oceanic plate moved under a continental plate, you would expect to find
a)	no volcanic eruptions
b)	sedimentary rocks
c)	mountains
d)	flood plains

50)	When one tectonic plate collides with another tectonic plate, what is likely to form along the edge?
a)	river valleys
b)	sedimentary rocks
c)	mountains
d)	fossils

51)	The Rocky Mountains' jagged peaks are a result of
a)	heat and pressure
b)	folding
c)	faulting
d)	years of erosion

52)	There are two different kinds of folds found in rocks. They are
a)	synclines and clines
b)	upward thrusts and side waves
c)	anticlines and upfolds
d)	anticlines and synclines

53)	Rocks that contain fossils are most likely
a)	sedimentary
b)	metamorphic
c)	igneous
d)	volcanic

54)	Since many fossils of sea life have been found at the top of mountains in the Kananaskis area, what might we infer?
a)	In the past, this area had been under water
b)	Birds had left the remains there after a meal
c)	Previous species of marine life could survive in a mountainous climate
d)	The mountains were once volcanic and the fossils were brought up in lava flows

55)	Rocks that contain fossils are usually from the rock family that is
a)	metamorphic
b)	sedimentary
c)	igneous
d)	prehistoric

56)	One of the best places to view dinosaur fossils is
a)	the Burgess Shale Community
b)	near the ocean shoreline
c)	the Badlands
d)	the Royal Tyrrell Museum

57)	Reconstruction of fossil remains is much like
a)	doing a puzzle
b)	creating a chart
c)	following a map
d)	using your imagination

STRUCTURES AND FORCES

58)	A Newton is the amount of matter in an object.
a)	True
b)	False

59)	The magnitude of a force refers to its direction.
a)	True
b)	False

60)	When a combination of external and internal forces becomes too great, they can weaken a structure by stress.
a)	True
b)	False

61)	A joint that is fixed means that its rigidity prevents any movement.
a)	True
b)	False

62)	The function of a structure refers to how it is built.
a)	True
b)	False

63)	Some of the main reasons that structures differ around the world are climate, culture, tradition, technology, and economics.
a)	True
b)	False

64)	A force is a push or pull that tends to cause an object to change movement or shape.
a)	True
b)	False

65)	An external force is a force that is applied on a structure by something else.
a)	True
b)	False

66)	When you tear a piece of paper, you are applying a compression force.
a)	True
b)	False

67)	A frame structure is
a)	a rigid arrangement of parts fastened together
b)	two or three dimensional
c)	strong because of the ways it's components are fastened together
d)	all of the above

68)	In evaluating designs from an overall perspective, considerations are made with regards to
a)	cost and the impact on the environment
b)	safety, benefits, and aesthetics
c)	impact on the environment, safety, cost, and benefits
d)	cost, structural stability, and environmental impacts

69)	Three basic structural forms are
a)	solid, hollow and frame
b)	shell, bridged and frame
c)	frame, solid and shell
d)	cupped, solid, and outline

70)	The function of a structure refers to
a)	its overall design
b)	its use or purpose
c)	how it is built
d)	the technological requirements

71)	Characteristics which are important in structures are
a)	function, design, aesthetics
b)	form, function, and design
c)	seasonal demands and functions
d)	climate, aesthetics, design

72)	In hot dry climates, homes are traditionally constructed of
a)	sunbaked brick, clay or mud
b)	bamboo
c)	long grasses woven together
d)	long poles and canvas covers

73)	The bigger a force's magnitude
a)	the stronger it is and the more effect it will have on a structure
b)	the more individuals needed to carry out the movement
c)	the less resistance is necessary to increase the friction
d)	the further away you need to stand when applying pressure

74)	The standard unit for measuring force is the
a)	joule
b)	gram
c)	Newton
d)	mass

75)	A static load is also called a
a)	live load
b)	dead load
c)	resistant load
d)	moving load

76)	The amount of matter in an object is referred to as its
a)	grams
b)	weight
c)	force
d)	mass

77)	The centre of gravity is best explained as
a)	the balanced arrangement of mass
b)	the imaginary point upon which the downward force of gravity acts
c)	the symmetrical arrangement that occurs on opposite sides of a line
d)	the centre of an axis

78)	The balanced arrangement of mass that occurs on opposite sides of a line or plane is known as
a)	centre of gravity
b)	symmetry
c)	dynamic load
d)	external load force

79)	The term "load" refers to
a)	an external force on a structure
b)	a balanced arrangement of mass
c)	the necessary resistance of a structure
d)	a realistic design of a structure's forces

80)	Three internal forces that are classified by the direction in which they act are
a)	compression, tension, and exertion
b)	tension, compression, and shear
c)	shear, exertion, and stress
d)	curvature, twisting, and bending

81)	Complementary forces are those in which
a)	bending occurs after the structure is immobile
b)	mobility is hampered by inconsistent movement
c)	different forces act on a structure at the same time
d)	a quick succession of movements follow repeatedly

82)	The strongest structural shape is
a)	rectangular
b)	arched
c)	square
d)	triangular

83)	A simple flat structure that is supported at each end is referred to as a
a)	girder
b)	beam
c)	column
d)	truss

84)	Structural stress can occur when
a)	a combination of internal and external forces weaken a structure
b)	there is repeated abnormal use of the structure
c)	a structure can no longer stand up to the forces acting upon it
d)	the design is not structurally proven

85)	The materials used in structures can be evaluated according to many properties such as
a)	joints, weight bearing, aesthetics
b)	resistance to heat, resistance to water, resistance to moisture
c)	ductility, compression, brittleness
d)	none of the above

86)	The term deformation refers to
a)	the ability of a material to bend under force without breaking
b)	the change of shape in a structure because the material is unable to resist the load acting on it
c)	the drag or resistance felt when a load is placed on a moveable structure
d)	the change of shape in a structure when the material absorbs the force acting upon it

87)	The place at which structural parts are joined is called a
a)	fastener
b)	friction fit
c)	joint
d)	interlock

88)	The force that results when the surface of one object moves against the surface of another is referred to as
a)	resistance
b)	gravity
c)	stress
d)	friction

89)	 Fixed joints are rigid to prevent any
a)	movement
b)	strength
c)	elasticity
d)	all of the above

90)	The muscles in your body are made of semi-solid tissue that functions by
a)	contracting and relaxing
b)	lengthening and contracting
c)	shortening and extending
d)	supporting and relaxing

91)	Evaluating the safety of a structure can be done by monitoring
a)	environmental changes
b)	how frequently a structure fails and why
c)	what forces are acting upon it
d)	what the maintenance costs will be after it is completed

92)	Strengthening materials through lamination and corrugation is
a)	taking some properties of each process
b)	a new technological advance
c)	combining materials and components in new arrangements
d)	a carefully developed technique

93)	The process of forming a material into wave-like ridges or folds is known as
a)	corrugation
b)	lamination
c)	reinforcing
d)	alternation 

PLANTS FOR FOOD AND FIBRE

94)	 All of the plants in the world are structurally the same. They have leaves, at least one stem and roots.
a)	True
b)	False
95)	
 Capillary action occurs when water travels from the roots to leaves through tiny tubes in the roots and the stems.
a)	True
b)	False

96)	Plants such as spruce trees have a thick resin coating on their leaves that protects the tree from drying out.
a)	True
b)	False

97)	 The three basic types of soil are sandy soil, clay soil, and loam soil.
a)	True
b)	False

98)	Most plants lose the majority of their water through
a)	roots
b)	leaves
c)	their stem
d)	flowers

99)	Transpiration occurs
a)	when carbon dioxide travels from the leaves to the roots
b)	when the leaves take carbon dioxide and sunlight to create food
c)	when water travels to the leaves from the roots through tiny tubes
d)	when plants use energy from the sun to make their own food

100)	Plants' energy comes from
a)	soil
b)	nutrients
c)	the root system
d)	the sun

101)	The life cycle of a plant is
a)	pollination -> seed -> seedling -> adult plant
b)	seed -> pollination -> seedling -> adult plant
c)	seedling -> pollination -> seed -> adult plant
d)	adult -> pollination -> seedling -> seed

102)	The process of cellular respiration is
a)	energy + carbon dioxide + water -> sugar + oxygen
b)	sugar + carbon dioxide + water -> energy + oxygen
c)	carbon dioxide + water -> energy + oxygen + energy
d)	sugar + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water + energy

103)	The process by which water is taken into the root's cells through a membrane is
a)	osmosis
b)	capillary action
c)	suction
d)	transpiration

104)	Diffusion is
a)	the movement of particles from low concentration to high concentration
b)	the gathering of particles in groups of concentrations
c)	the concentration of particles in the pores of a cell
d)	the movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration

105)	Seedlings
a)	use stored food until they start to photosynthesize and produce their own food
b)	produce their own food through photosynthesis and nutrients from the soil
c)	do not need food until they establish themselves
d)	grow slowly so they do not have great demands initially

106)	In order for a seed plant to create a seed, it needs to undergo the process of
a)	pollination
b)	transpiration
c)	diffusion
d)	osmosis

107)	The steps for a seed to form are
a)	stigma -> pollen tube -> ovule -> pollen
b)	ovule -> stigma -> pollen tube -> ovule
c)	pollen -> stigma -> pollen tube -> ovule
d)	pollen -> pollen tube -> stigma -> ovule

108)	Some ways that plants reproduce naturally without seeds are
a)	rhizomes, grafting, cuttings, suckers
b)	grafting, suckers, runners, rhizomes
c)	rhizomes, suckers, runners
d)	grafting, suckers, runners

109)	Which leaf type is adapted to dry conditions?
a)	shaped like needles
b)	large and fibrous
c)	small and fibrous
d)	none of these

110)	A plant that can produce seeds in less than two months is adapted to
a)	moist conditions such as a swamp
b)	a short growing season
c)	pollination by wind
d)	capturing sunlight

111)	The special needs of all plants are
a)	light, water, nutrients, space
b)	light, water, leaves, food
c)	water, stems, roots, light
d)	light, space, nutrients, insects

112)	If a plant's leaf is turning yellow instead of green it is missing the nutrient
a)	potassium
b)	nitrogen
c)	calcium
d)	magnesium

113)	Plants are found
a)	in deserts
b)	under the ocean
c)	under Arctic snow
d)	in almost every environment

114)	Plants are producers; this means
a)	they can make their own food
b)	they consume others to make their own food
c)	they get their food from breaking down other organisms
d)	they are at the top of the food chain

115)	Plants provide us with food, fibre, and medicine. By fibre, we mean
a)	cotton, wood, fruits
b)	fruit, cotton, syrup
c)	leaves, nuts, fruits
d)	cotton, wood, paper

116)	Living resources are
a)	trees that are harvested by forest managers
b)	any living thing that can be used for human needs
c)	dairy cattle that provide milk for humans
d)	crops that are raised to provide food for people

117)	How did the early settlers greatly alter the living resources of the plain?
a)	They came by wagon and left trails.
b)	They burned the grasses.
c)	They plowed the land and changed what was grown.
d)	They built houses out of sod.

118)	When a living resource is being used up faster than it can be replaced, it is called
a)	sustainable use
b)	environmentally unstable
c)	extinct
d)	non-sustainable use

119)	Soil is made up of small particles. The spaces between the particles are filled with
a)	plant roots or insects
b)	water or air
c)	nutrients or water
d)	plant roots or water

120)	Sandy soil
a)	feels slippery when wet
b)	is mostly mineral particles
c)	contains food for plants
d)	is a wide variety of colours

121)	Plants that need good drainage will grow best in
a)	sandy soil
b)	clay soil
c)	loam soil
d)	humus

122)	Soil is an important natural resource because
a)	we need it to grow the plants that we need for food
b)	soil puts oxygen back into the air
c)	rotten materials are absorbed by the soil
d)	we can mine it for loam and humus

123)	Two types of fertilizer are
a)	humus and hydroponics
b)	organic and humus
c)	chemical and humus
d)	chemical and organic

124)	The method of growing plants without soil is called
a)	crop rotation
b)	hydroponics
c)	monoculture
d)	selective breeding

125)	Yield means
a)	to give up farming because of expenses
b)	the amount of humus in one hectare of land
c)	the amount of useful plant part produced per plant
d)	the amount of fertilizer applied per hectare

126)	Two methods of obtaining crops with specific traits are
a)	monoculture and selective breeding
b)	selective breeding and genetic engineering
c)	genetic engineering and monoculture
d)	selective breeding and monoculture

127)	Ways of controlling pests and weeds are
a)	herbicides, pesticides and biological controls
b)	varying the amount of water
c)	fertilizers
d)	changing the choice of crop

128)	All seed plants
a)	have roots
b)	have leaves
c)	have a stem
d)	all of the above

129)	The cell membrane has tiny holes called pores. These pores
a)	allow some substances to move into the cell
b)	allow some substances to move out of the cell
c)	allow some substances in and out of the cell
d)	keep everything out of the cells

130)	The male part of the flower is called the
a)	stem
b)	ovary
c)	pollen
d)	ovule

131)	Plants are necessary to all life on Earth because they
a)	provide shelter and protect the soil
b)	provide food
c)	provide oxygen
d)	all of the above

132)	When organic materials are partially decomposed they are called
a)	mineral particles
b)	vegetative runners
c)	sandy particles
d)	humus

133)	Which is not true for clay soil?
a)	It is very hard.
b)	It has large pores.
c)	It comes in a variety of colours.
d)	It will form a tight ball.

134)	A natural environment is one
a)	in which humans manage the area carefully
b)	where everything that remains after the harvest is left to decompose
c)	where the soil is managed so all plants can grow
d)	where humans do not become involved

135)	Environmental management involves
a)	balancing the needs of the environment with those of humans
b)	the growing of crops using organic fertilizers
c)	the use of organisms to control pests
d)	the use of organisms to control weeds

136)	Biodiversity is
a)	increased by monoculture
b)	limited by monoculture
c)	not affected by monoculture
d)	not an important consideration in monoculture 

HEAT AND TEMPERATURE

137)	What S.I. unit is used to represent temperature?
a)	Celsius
b)	joule
c)	Fahrenheit
d)	calorie

138)	What is the point at which a liquid changes to a gas?
a)	sublimation point
b)	melting point
c)	condensation point
d)	boiling point

139)	At what temperature does water condense?
a)	99˚C
b)	101˚C
c)	0˚C
d)	100˚C

140)	Which of the following describes why liquid water is able to turn into ice?
a)	Heat energy is taken away from the liquid water.
b)	Heat energy is taken away from the ice.
c)	Heat energy is added to the ice.
d)	Heat energy is added to the liquid water.

141)	Which state of matter has the largest spaces between its particles?
a)	liquids
b)	gases
c)	ice
d)	solids

142)	During the summer, your parents pour a brand new cement driveway. In the spring, you notice several large cracks in the cement. What is the cause of the cracks?
a)	As the cement cooled in the winter, it contracted, causing stress fractures to occur.
b)	As the cement cooled in the winter, it expanded, causing stress fractures to occur.
c)	The cement was faulty.
d)	None of the above

143)	Materials that do not allow easy transfer of heat are called
a)	insulators
b)	conductors
c)	resistors
d)	inconductors

144)	Which of the following is not a good insulator?
a)	metal mug
b)	glass
c)	plastic cups
d)	ceramic mug

145)	Conduction is caused by
a)	the transfer of energy by the direct collision of particles
b)	the transfer of temperature by the direct collision of particles
c)	the flowing of heat from a cooler object to a hotter one
d)	none of the above

146)	A kettle of water is placed on the stove. Heat is transferred from the burner to the kettle by the process of
a)	conduction
b)	convection
c)	radiation
d)	absorption

147)	A kettle of water is placed on the stove. Heat is transferred through the water by the process of
a)	conduction
b)	convection
c)	radiation
d)	absorption

148)	If you were building a new house and had to decide where to put your heater vents, where would be the best place and why?
a)	on the ceiling so the hot air could sink to the colder floor
b)	half-way up the wall so the top and bottom halves of the room could be heated evenly
c)	near the bottom on the wall so the warm air could rise and circulate throughout the room
d)	none of the above

149)	When the thermal energy from the sun reaches our planet, which method of heat transfer occurs?
a)	conduction
b)	convection
c)	radiation
d)	all of the above